Can someone live their entire lives without exhibiting any real symptoms of schizophrenia or Bipolar disorder (to the outside world at least) only to be diagnosed with one of these in their 40s?
Would those closest to them not see any particular patterns that would be markers or indicators of the illness?
The diagnosis was made following an attempted suicide recently.
Would those closest to them not see any particular patterns that would be markers or indicators of the illness?
The diagnosis was made following an attempted suicide recently.