Hi everyone,
I don't really know which section to post this thread in but anyway, can anyone out here give me some academic help?
I am a second year psych student and I am reviewing some literature on semantic priming in schizophrenia. Well, in short, some experiments (Manschreck et al 1988; Moritz et al 2001; 2002 etc...) shows that hyper-priming is observed whereas some experiments (Ober, Vinogradov...etc) shows that schizophrenics display normal priming as controls.
The question is: where should I stand? Any experts out there who have done research on semantic priming on schizophrenia (specifically TD schizophrenia) or has the expertise to give me some advice? I have been trying really hard to make sense out of some articles but to no avail. I really appreciate if any researcher out there can guide me and point me to the right direction.
Thanks.
Regards
Ryan
I don't really know which section to post this thread in but anyway, can anyone out here give me some academic help?
I am a second year psych student and I am reviewing some literature on semantic priming in schizophrenia. Well, in short, some experiments (Manschreck et al 1988; Moritz et al 2001; 2002 etc...) shows that hyper-priming is observed whereas some experiments (Ober, Vinogradov...etc) shows that schizophrenics display normal priming as controls.
The question is: where should I stand? Any experts out there who have done research on semantic priming on schizophrenia (specifically TD schizophrenia) or has the expertise to give me some advice? I have been trying really hard to make sense out of some articles but to no avail. I really appreciate if any researcher out there can guide me and point me to the right direction.
Thanks.
Regards
Ryan