Perhaps kind of a lame question, but it does tie into a few other things I've read and seen, yet it seems on the surface to be contradictory: From what I understand sociopaths have very poor impulse control, and little gray matter. They don't feel fear as we do, or anxiety, and the few emotions they do have are very superficial. And yet, I often read of things about how confirmed sociopaths had exactly what they were claimed to be missing, higher emotional experiences. Ted Bundy for example had to get drunk before he acted on his own impulses, and then would [so he claimed] panic after he had so. Drinking to lower inhibitions, panic after an action? Aren't these exactly the opposite of what sociopaths would do?
I hear that a lot when I read on sociopath personalities, the individual in question expresses how he did xyz as a result of an emotional experience, and the veracity of the ascribed actions are taken to be true. Yet I cant think of how these would actually make sense unless the emotional experience too, was true, yet they aren't meant to be having these experiences.
I hear that a lot when I read on sociopath personalities, the individual in question expresses how he did xyz as a result of an emotional experience, and the veracity of the ascribed actions are taken to be true. Yet I cant think of how these would actually make sense unless the emotional experience too, was true, yet they aren't meant to be having these experiences.